>The whole of the original post disputed that the elves had access to realm
>magic in pre-Deismaar times and therefore because humans have a god of
>magic, humans should have more advanced realm magic. I dispute this view
>because I believe that the elves had realm magic before Deismaar. As only
>realm magic requires ley-lines, those two references imply that the elves
>had realm magic before Deismaar. Which also reinforces my theory that
>something extraordinary happened in the 1st Elven-Human war, as humans
>requires bloodlines to use either clerical or magical realm magic and
>therefore should not have had access to realm magic before Deismaar.