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View Full Version : investiture from an Awnshegh?



HookedOnBR
08-08-2009, 07:18 AM
Hey I need help with a lil delima I have. Just wondering what might happen to a blooded regent if the hand lands investited to them from an Awnshegh?

Sorontar
08-08-2009, 08:30 AM
It is a little unclear how your regent got the lands from the awnshegh, but first let's presume that they are the heir of the awnshegh...

I believe that it would be treated in a similar way to bloodtheft. The new regent would get the bloodline, derivation, score, strength and domain of the awnshegh if they were unblooded. If they were already a scion, then the two derivations would compete with each other (i.e. they may switch to a bloodline of Azrai).

See
http://www.birthright.net/brwiki/index.php/Investiture_(spell)#Bloodline_Investiture

I am not sure what happens if it was just a transfer of part of the awnie's domain.

See http://www.birthright.net/brwiki/index.php/Ceremony#Ceremony_.5BStandard.3B_Administrate.3B_1 _GB.5D

If the lands are unclaimed because the Spider etc died without an heir, then the land (ie. DM) can decide what the new regent gets. After all, if the Land hasn't already decided who is the new heir then it will hold the regency until it is satisfied that a suitable regent has arrived. What derivation it gives them, will be up to the Land.

Sorontar

HookedOnBR
08-08-2009, 06:15 PM
Ok I'll clarify it a bit. Its a willing investiture between an awnshegh and my character. It helped me to take a bit of land and is going to willing invest it to me. I'm just wondering what is to happen to my character before I go through with it.

HookedOnBR
08-08-2009, 06:52 PM
Ok, I'll clear it up a little bit. Say an awnshegh aided in taking over Mieres. When the regent was killed the land transferred to the awnshegh. It is then still willing to invest the land to say Mhistecai would there be a risk of it transforming her into an awnshegh

Thelandrin
08-08-2009, 09:05 PM
That sounds like a terribly familiar situation for some reason. I can't think why :)

Sorontar
08-09-2009, 07:31 AM
So it is a transfer of regency, and then an vassalage in return.

According to the BRCS in the link I gave, you don't need a check of the transfer action, provided both parties are willing. Then the vassalage will have to be declared.

The one thing I can't answer is what realm spells need to be cast. Vassalage apparently needs a temple regent to cast a spell but it doesn't specify which one. "Bloodline Investiture" does a complete transfer of the bloodline from one scion to another, so I can't see that being the spell. Is there something I have missed?

Sorontar.

irdeggman
08-09-2009, 12:07 PM
The one thing I can't answer is what realm spells need to be cast. Vassalage apparently needs a temple regent to cast a spell but it doesn't specify which one. "Bloodline Investiture" does a complete transfer of the bloodline from one scion to another, so I can't see that being the spell. Is there something I have missed?

Sorontar.

No spell, the text only specifies only a cleric "capable of casting a realm spell" (that is a cleric regent with temple holdings). It has to do with the power and influence the character has and thus demonstrating to the people that this is a true and binding vassalage.